Islam's Position on Polygamy
Muslims are often accused of being promiscuous because polygamy is legal in Islam.
Islam did not introduce polygamy. Unrestricted polygamy was practiced in most human societies throughout the world in every age. Islam regulated polygamy by limiting the number of wives and establishing responsibility in its practice.
Monogamy of the West inherited from Greece and Rome where men were restricted by law to one wife but were free to have as many mistresses among the majority slave population as they wished. In the West today, most married men have extramarital relations with mistresses, girlfriends and prostitutes. Consequently the Western claim to monogamy is false.
Monogamy illogical. If a man wishes to have a second wife whom he takes care of and whose children carry his name and he provides for he is considered a criminal, bigamist, who may be sentenced to years in jail. However, if he has numerous mistresses and illegitimate children his relation is considered legal.
The Qur'an is not the word of God but on the contrary the handiwork of the satan ?
In reply to a similar allegation put forward by the pagans of makkah, that the Prophet (pbuh) received the revelations from the devils , the following verses were revealed:
Surah waqiah, chapter 56 verses 77-80
"that this is indeed a qur'an most honourable, In a book well-guarded, Which none shall touch but those who are clean, a revelation from the lord of the worlds."
Kitabim maknoon means a book well guarded or a protected book, referring to lauh-e-mahfooz in the heaven, which none shall touch except the mutahhareen. ie Those who do not have any uncleanliness or impurity or evil like sin. This refers to the angels. The satan and devils are absolutely prohobited.
Thus since it is impossible for satan to come anywhere close to it or touch it, the question of him writing the verses of the glorious qur'an does not arise.
It is further mentioned in surah shura, chapter 26 verse 210-212
"no evil ones have brought down this (revelation): It would neither suit them nor would they be able (to produce it). Indeed they have been removed far from even (a chance of)hearing it."
Many people have a wrong concept of satan. They think that satan can probably do everything, except a couple of things that god can do. According to them, satan is slightly below god in power. Since the people do not want to accept that the qur'an is a miraculous revelation, they say that it is satan's handiwork.
Does not your Qur'an mention that Jesus is the word of Allah (swt) as well the spirit of Allah,thus indicating his divinity?
1. Jesus (pbuh) "is a word from Allah" not "the word of Allah"The qur'an mentions in surah al imran chapter 3 verse 45
"behold! The angels said: o mary! Allah giveth thee glad tidings of a word from him: his name will be christ Jesus. The son of Mary, held in honour in this world and the hereafter and of (the company of) those nearest to Allah.
Jesus (pbuh) is referred in the qur'an as a word from Allah and not as 'the word of Allah'.
"a word" of Allah means a message of Allah. If a person is referred to as "a word" from Allah, it means that he is a messenger or a prophet of Allah.
2. The title of a prophet (pbuh) does not mean that it exclusively belongs to that prophet (pbuh). Different titles are given to different prophets (pbut). Whenever a title is given to a prophet (pbuh), it does not necessarily mean that the other prophets do not have the same characteristic or quality. For e.g. Prophet Abraham (pbuh) is referred to in the qur'an as khaleelullah, a friend of Allah. This does not indicate that all the other prophets (pbut) were not the friends of Allah. Prophet moses (pbuh) is referred to in the qur'an as kaleemullah, indicating that god spoke to him. This does not mean that God did not speak to others. Similarly when Jesus (pbuh) is referred to in the qur'an as kalimatullah, "a word from Allah", it does not mean that the other prophets were not "the word," of Allah.
Is it not true that your Qur'an mentions in surah Maryam, chapter 19 verse 33 that Jesus (pbuh) died and was resurrected?
Jesus (pbuh) said, "the day that i die", not "the day that i died"
It is mentioned in surah maryam, chapter 19 verse 33
"so peace is on me the day i was born, the day that i die and the day that i shall be raised up to life (again)".
The qur'an mentions that jesus (pbuh) said "peace is on me the day i was born, the day that i die". It is not stated "the day that i died". It is in the future tense and not in the past tense.
Jesus (pbuh) was raised up aliveThe qur'an further says in surah nisa, chapter 4 verse 157-158:
"that they said (in boast), 'we killed jesus christ the son of mary, the messenger of allah' – but they killed him not, nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to them, and those who differ therein are full of doubts, with no (certain) knowledge, but only conjecture to follow, for of a surety they killed him not –Nay, allah raised him up unto himself; and allah is exalted in power, wise." [al-qur'an 4:157-158]
It is mentioned in your Qur'an that Mary was the sister of Aaron (pbuh) ?
1. In the semitic languages sister also means descendant The qur'an mentions in surah maryam, chapter 19 verses 27-28
"at length she brought the (babe) to her people, carrying him (in her arms). They said: 'o mary! Truly an amazing thing hast thou brought!
O sister of aaron! Thy father was not a man of evil, nor thy mother a woman unchaste!'"
Christian missionaries say that prophet muhammad (pbuh) did not know the difference between mary the mother of jesus (pbuh) and miriam the sister of aaron (pbuh). The time span between both was more than a thousand years.
In the arabic construction of the sentence, sister is also considered as a descendant. Thus, when the people said to mary, ukhta haroon i.e. 'sister of aaron' it actually means descendant of aaron (pbuh).
2. Son also means descendant It is mentioned in the gospel of mathew, chapter 1 verse 1 "jesus christ, the son of david,....".[mathew 1:1]
gospel of luke chapter 3, verse 23 "and jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of joseph, ....."[luke 3:23]
Did jesus (pbuh) have two fathers? What do you call a person who has two fathers? The explanation of the phrase that jesus (pbuh) was the son of david (pbuh), is that jesus (pbuh) was a descendant of david (pbuh). 'son', here means a descendant.